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NEW QUESTION # 285
Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP network traffic instead?
- A. iSCSI
- B. SCSI
- C. SATA
- D. TLS
Answer: A
Explanation:
iSCSI is a protocol that allows for the transmission and use of SCSI commands and features over a TCP- based network. iSCSI allows systems to use block-level storage that looks and behaves as a SAN would with physical servers, but to leverage the TCP network within a virtualized environment and cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 286
What could be the result of failure of the cloud provider to secure the hypervisor in such a way that one user on a virtual machine can see the resource calls of another user's virtual machine?
- A. Unauthorized data disclosure
- B. Physical intrusion
- C. Social engineering
- D. Inference attacks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 287
Although much of the attention given to data security is focused on keeping data private and only accessible by authorized individuals, of equal importance is the trustworthiness of the data.
Which concept encapsulates this?
- A. Accessibility
- B. Validity
- C. Integrity
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integrity refers to the trustworthiness of data and whether its format and values are true and have not been corrupted or otherwise altered through unauthorized means. Confidentiality refers to keeping data from being access or viewed by unauthorized parties. Accessibility means that data is available and ready when needed by a user or service. Validity can mean a variety of things that are somewhat similar to integrity, but it's not the most appropriate answer in this case.
NEW QUESTION # 288
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) publishes the Notorious Nine, a list of common threats to organizations participating in cloud computing. A cloud customer that does not perform sufficient due diligence can suffer harm if the cloud provider they've selected goes out of business.
What do we call this problem?
Response:
- A. Vendor incapacity
- B. Vendor lock-out
- C. Unscaled
- D. Vendor lock-in
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 289
Halon is now illegal to use for data center fire suppression. What is the reason it was outlawed?
Response:
- A. It causes undue damage to electronic systems.
- B. It poses a threat to health and human safety when deployed.
- C. It can harm the environment.
- D. It does not adequately suppress fires.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 290
Which characteristic of automated patching makes it attractive?
Response:
- A. Capability to recognize problems quickly
- B. Noise reduction
- C. Cost
- D. Speed
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 291
A cloud provider is looking to provide a higher level of assurance to current and potential cloud customers about the design and effectiveness of their security controls. Which of the following audit reports would the cloud provider choose as the most appropriate to accomplish this goal?
Response:
- A. SOC 2
- B. SAS-70
- C. SOC 1
- D. SOC 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 292
Which of the following concepts refers to a cloud customer paying only for the resources and offerings they use within a cloud environment, and only for the duration that they are consuming them?
- A. Metered service
- B. Measured service
- C. Billable service
- D. Consumable service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Measured service is where cloud services are delivered and billed in a metered way, where the cloud customer only pays for those that they actually use, and for the duration of time that they use them.
NEW QUESTION # 293
What are the six components that make up the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege
- B. Spoofing, Tampering, Non-Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege
- C. Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Distributed Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege
- D. Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Social Engineering
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 294
The BC/DR kit should include all of the following except:
- A. Annotated asset inventory
- B. Hard drives
- C. Flashlight
- D. Documentation equipment
Answer: B
Explanation:
While hard drives may be useful in the kit (for instance, if they store BC/DR data such as inventory lists, baselines, and patches), they are not necessarily required. All the other items should be included.
NEW QUESTION # 295
Which of the following statements accurately describes VLANs?
- A. They are not restricted to the name rack but restricted to the same data center.
- B. They are restricted to the same racks and data centers.
- C. They are not restricted to the same rack but restricted to same switches.
- D. They are not restricted to the same data center or the same racks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A virtual area network (VLAN) can span any networks within a data center, or it can span across different physical locations and data centers.
NEW QUESTION # 296
What are the objectives of change management?
(Choose all that apply.)
Response:
- A. Ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
- B. Respond to a customer's changing business requirements while maximizing value and reducing incidents, disruption, and rework
- C. Ensure that all changes are prioritized, planned, tested, implemented, documented, and reviewed in a controlled manner
- D. Respond to business and IT requests for change that will disassociate services with business needs
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 297
Which component of ITIL involves handling anything that can impact services for either internal or public users?
- A. Problem management
- B. Deployment management
- C. Change management
- D. Incident management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Incident management is focused on limiting the impact of disruptions to an organization's services or operations, as well as returning their state to full operational status as soon as possible. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.
Deployment management is a subcomponent of change management and is where the actual code or configuration change is put into place. Change management involves the processes and procedures that allow an organization to make changes to its IT systems and services in a controlled manner.
NEW QUESTION # 298
Designers making applications for the cloud have to take into consideration risks and operational constraints that did not exist or were not as pronounced in the legacy environment.
Which of the following is an element cloud app designers may have to consider incorporating in software for the cloud that might not have been as important in the legacy environment?
Response:
- A. Encryption for data at rest and in motion
- B. Field validation
- C. DDoS resistance
- D. IAM capability
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 299
Which of the following is NOT an application or utility to apply and enforce baselines on a system?
- A. Active Directory
- B. Puppet
- C. GitHub
- D. Chef
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
GitHub is an application for code collaboration, including versioning and branching of code trees. It is not used for applying or maintaining system configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 300
Static software security testing typically uses __________ as a measure of how thorough the testing was.
- A. Flaws detected
- B. Code coverage
- C. Number of testers
- D. Malware hits
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 301
Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?
- A. Static
- B. Malicious
- C. Dynamic
- D. Penetration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Penetration testing involves using the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use against a system to discovery potential vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 302
Which of the following is NOT one of the official risk rating categories?
- A. Critical
- B. Minimal
- C. Catastrophic
- D. Low
Answer: C
Explanation:
The official categories of cloud risk ratings are Minimal, Low, Moderate, High, and Critical.
NEW QUESTION # 303
Tokenization requires two distinct ______________.
Response:
- A. Databases
- B. Encryption keys
- C. Personnel
- D. Authentication factors
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 304
What is the term we use to describe the general ease and efficiency of moving data from one cloud provider either to another cloud provider or down from the cloud?
- A. Obfuscation
- B. Elasticity
- C. Portability
- D. Mobility
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Elasticity is the name for the benefit of cloud computing where resources can be apportioned as necessary to meet customer demand. Obfuscation is a technique to hide full raw datasets, either from personnel who do not have need to know or for use in testing. Mobility is not a term pertinent to the CBK.
NEW QUESTION # 305
What strategy involves hiding data in a data set to prevent someone from identifying specific individuals based on other data fields present?
- A. Anonymization
- B. Obfuscation
- C. Tokenization
- D. Masking
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With data anonymization, data is manipulated in such a way so as to prevent the identification of an individual through various data objects, and is often used in conjunction with other concepts such as masking.
NEW QUESTION # 306
The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles.
Which of the five principles must also be included when auditing any of the other four principles?
- A. Privacy
- B. Availability
- C. Security
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under the SOC guidelines, when any of the four principles other than security are being audited, which includes availability, confidentiality, processing integrity, and privacy, the security principle must also be included with the audit.
NEW QUESTION # 307
What type of host is exposed to the public Internet for a specific reason and hardened to perform only that function for authorized users?
- A. Bastion
- B. Proxy
- C. Honeypot
- D. WAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A bastion host is a server that is fully exposed to the public Internet, but is extremely hardened to prevent attacks and is usually dedicated for a specific application or usage; it is not something that will serve multiple purposes. This singular focus allows for much more stringent security hardening and monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 308
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